No one calls you an oddball unless the person is opposed to
what you stand for and since I am known as an anti-UOJ, I can only assume that the
gentleman who called me by that label must be pro-UOJ. I am not deluded in thinking I am well liked by people, I am not. Now, I have been to his blog
and I could not detect if he has his own articulation of UOJ since most of his
posts are bits and pieces of items normally from various authors, i.e., theologians or
scholars, and since he recommended to James Swan to read Marquart on UOJ, I can
safely assume Yee accepts the authority of the UOJ masters.
So let me consider some of the creative ways UOJers are
using Scripture to promote the idea that all have already been justified, declared righteous and
hence, forgiven automatically at the Cross.
The first attempt was in Romans 4:25. In this post I have
outline why their favorite verse does not teach their theory but rather that if
an individual swallows such interpretation, he/she must swallow other
inconsistencies against Scripture. Indeed, this is where the Synodic Lutherans
of USA are quite peculiar to the rest of the Lutheran world. In fact, they are
peculiar also to the rest of the Protestant world. Only the subscribers to UOJ take Romans 4:25
to mean that by that verse the whole world even those yet to be born are
already justified.
The second one is Colossians 2:14 found in this blog post by
a member of Steadfast Lutherans [sic] (so they call themselves) found
here. Let me repeat what was said and let me put my
emphasis on a bad interpretation of Col 2:14
This is to say, there would be nothing real for faith to
receive and cling to. When we talk about the objective nature of justification,
the terms used relate to Christ’s work as it satisfies the legal requirements
of the Law with the whole of mankind in view. That is, the record of debt
against the world, with all its legal demands, has been blotted out (Col 2:14), the
sins of the world absolved, and this pardon is now freely offered to all in the
Word and Sacraments. Some will
receive through God given faith this gift to their joy, while others will sadly
continue to reject this gift to their own damnation (Mark 16:16)
I have reacted to this interpretation and you will find my
counter discussion of this found in my posts,
here
and
here.
I have continued to reflect on this passage over the past months and in this
occasion I shall add more argument why Col 2:14 is being misused in that quote.
According to Pierce, by virtue of Col 2:14, all legal
demands against the world are gone; the Law has no more teeth to bite anyone. Something
fishy is going on in here because the word “world” is being used without
qualification. Is this true, that the
world has already been absolved of the Law’s demands? If so, why do we baptize
anyone? Scripture says that sin is transgression against the Law. If the Law
has no more claims on anyone, even perhaps a Christian, why do we confess our
sins and why do we have the promise that if we confess them God, cleanses and
forgives (1 John 1:9)?
If we read the whole context of Col 2:14, i.e, verses 8-14
inclusive we see that St. Paul was referring to the Christian, it is only to
the Christian where the demands of the Law have been thwarted because as v.12
says he/she has been baptized, meaning the sinner has been incorporated into
Christ by that Means of Grace. St. Paul was addressing the Christian living in
Colossia. The thwarting of the Law’s demands happens only to the believer and
not to the whole world without qualification.
This is sometimes where I find how UOJers are like
Calvinists in the reverse order. When the Bible uses pronouns, like “us”, we”
and they are a referent to the Christian, the UOJer interprets it to mean the
whole human race. On the other hand when the pronouns “us”, “we” as a generic
referent to the human race, the Calvinists confine it to believers. It is
only through the JBFA Lutheran that I find there is consistency and respect for
the language of Scripture.
Scripture interprets Scripture,
in fact according to St. Paul which I have stated in the said posts, it is the
Christian who is not under the Law, because he is now under grace - Romans 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for
ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Who is now under grace? It is the believer, the sinner who
trusts in Christ. It is the one united with Christ who is freed from the claims
of the Law because he/she has died with Christ in baptism. The Law has no more
claim on dead people yet only those in whom the Means of Grace have been
applied are the ones declared dead by St. Paul in Romans 6.
So here once again, we see a peculiar way of taking
Scripture found in Col 2:14.
Please do not get me started on Ephesians 2:15. Luckily no one has yet attempted to say the
same thing in the Ephesian passages.
So I say, who is the real oddball here? The UOJ Lutheran or
the JBFA Lutheran?